Bell's experiment
Why Bell inequalities exclude hidden variables?
Before all: it only excludes \textbf{local} hidden variables.
Einstein, Podolsky, Rosen and Bohm thought a gendaken that consisted of two particles, positron and electron, carrying opposite spins and emerging from the same neutral
But Bell modified the experiment in the following sense. He thought about measuring both spins (electron and positron) at different angles, turning slightly the detectors. Assigned a value to the detector result: +1 and -1, and kept track of the product of the results of both detectors to compute their average:
Subquestion: why the product? Because this way is easy to follow the correlation. The product being -1 is what it should be if we had perfectly aligned detectors. I we turn a detector a little we would sometimes get a +1]
Now, think in a classical context: the electron and positron are balls with opposite spin (=angular momentum), but with random orientation, and our detectors only give us the sign of the projection of the spin over the orientation vector of the detectors (call them
By simple probabilities calculations (total probability theorem) we obtain that
But according to QM the balls would be in an entangled state
If we measure the electron and obtain +1 the state collapse to
I conclude that because
Analogously
So, using total probability theorem
So CM and QM disagrees. Experiments, of course, give the reason to QM. Observe that the \textbf{hidden variable
But what about any other alternative theory to CM with more hidden variables or with other probability distribution of the variable (above we have supposed that the random angle
Let's see. Supposse that the pairs electron-positron comes with a set o hidden variables
I we now consider another detector.. (This is in chapter Afterwords, in Griffiths)...